Quantifiers Questions - - Question 23
All too many weaklings are also cowards, and few cowards fail to be fools. Thus there must be at least one person wh...
Replies
katia May 26, 2018
Also looking for an answer to this question ^
Anita May 28, 2018
@NativeJustice I read both as "some" (some weaklings are cowards, some cowards are fools.) Unless they indicate that it is definitely a majority, it's best to read that as some.
jcj2433 October 13, 2021
@Anita I'm still lacking clarity. The LSAT is often written to trick us into making wrong choices. In fact, Mehran says in one of the opening lessons, " The LSAT writers do not like you. They are trying to trick you." In this instance, "few cowards fail to be fools," appeared to be a trap to me. Few is the same as some, so naturally, Cowards-some-Fools. However, the word fail is throwing a wrench in my set-up. If one has a group of cowards and only a few of those cowards fail to be fools...wouldn't the majority of said group be both cowards and fools? Diagramed as: Cowards-most-Fools. I know we don't know any fixed numbers here, but "Few," as defined by Oxford Languages is: 1.) a small number of people or things 2.) used to emphasize how small a number is 3.) as a plural noun THE FEW - the minority of people; the elect. Given all three definitions, it's hard for me to ignore the connotations of, "few," being less than half. Thus, Cowards-most-Fools. I feel like this is especially critical in a flawed parallel reasoning question, in that I was looking for an answer that errantly combined a Most quantifier with a Some quantifier. Of course, I found none, and was left to guess at the rest. Has the LSAT writers' tendencies to be as convoluted as possible finally come back to bite them? Unfortunately, I doubt it. In summation, at least according to how I'm interpreting all practical definitions, "few cowards fail to be fools," manifests itself as C-most-F and thus F-some-C. Where did I go wrong?
jcj2433 October 13, 2021
Also, sorry for the wall of text. It's my first post.Dieg) December 23, 2021
I would like to see an explanation of this as well. It seems to me that the passage implies the opposite of "few" (i.e., the minority), which I would assume is the majority, or most. Therefore, I feel as though they are indicating that there is "definitely a majority."
jakennedy January 19, 2022
Hi @Dieg),The word “few” should be interpreted as a “some” quantifier because we do not necessarily know whether it is over 50% or not. The same would apply to the word “many”. Never translate either of them into most statements.
So the stimulus has the following logical structure, as does the correct answer choice:
A <-some? B
B <-some? C
———————
A <-some? C