Linear Games Questions - - Question 2
Skylar October 5, 2019
@kswope No, this does not necessarily contradict the rules. We know that G > P, G > I, and G > R. We know that GP are adjacent and IR/RI are adjacent. However, we do not necessarily know that P > I or P > R. It could very well be the case that G > P which is equal to I/R and before the other variable (R/I).