The author draws an analogy between the Latin Bible and an early law code (lines 49-51) in order to make which one of...
MACZOctober 28, 2019
What is the difference between A and B?
I eliminated answer A and B because they appeared to say exactly the same thing, just in different words. I've read it over a few times and I'm struggling to see what the difference is between them. They both looked like good answers but if they are both saying the same thing then I thought I should eliminate them. Thanks for your help!
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A tells us that the more inaccessible a document is, the more it was considered authoritative. This implies a cause and effect which is not supported in the passage. Rather, inaccessibility gives more authority/power to the elites, not to the document itself. Why would the church resist vernacular translations of the Latin Bible? This was not to maintain the Bible's authority, but rather to maintain the elites' exclusive right to interpret. This is why A is incorrect.
B says something different. It simply states that highly influential documents were not always accessible to the majority. Was the bible highly influential? Yes, it was a venerated document. Was the bible accessible? No, it was a "closed book," and the church resisted translations that would make it more accessible. This is why B is correct.
