All too many weaklings are also cowards, and few cowards fail to be fools. Thus there must be at least one person wh...
avifApril 22, 2020
Why is Few Aren't a Most Statement
In this question I was confused by the fact that I thought that few aren't means that most are. If only a few of a group aren't than most are. At least that's how I would understand language.
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I think your understanding is correct. If few do not, then most do! If few do, then most do not.
I hope this helps. Please let me know if you'd like to me to clarify further.
avifApril 23, 2020
The problem is that I couldn't find the answer based on that logic. In the explanation to the question it says that phrase is considered a some phrase. In the answer choices there were either two most statements answer b or two some statements answer c. This is what got me confused.
Brett-LindsayJuly 19, 2020
I think that there's a lot of disagreement between the teachers on this one. Using pure English-based understanding, I also interpreted it to mean that most do not.
I thought that "few cowards fail to be fools" meant that "most cowards are fools"
In the earlier threads, it seems to be interpreted as meaning "some," and in the later threads (and the written explanations), it is taught as being "most"
It definitely seems a little easier to solve with a "some" interpretation, though.
It's definitely a little confusing!
lsatstudier1September 17, 2020
Hi, can a Lsatmax instructor weigh in on this? I also thought "few cowards fail to be fools" would be C-m-F (most cowards are fools).
