According to the passage, Title VII of the 1964 Civil Rights Act differs from Executive Order 11,246 in that Title VII

ankita96 July 30, 2020

Ans Choice C

Could you explain why "disparity in wages" can not be implied , because the bill was said to do away with practices of discrimination in the employment sector. This would reflect that right? Thanks in advance!

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shunhe July 30, 2020

Hi @ankita96,

Thanks for the question! So this question is asking us how Title VII differs from Executive Order 11,246. (C) tells us that the difference is that Title VII eliminates discriminatory disparities in wages, which would imply that Executive Order 11,246 doesn’t.

So let’s take a look at where we’re told about this, and this is at the very beginning of the passage in the first sentence. There, we’re told that the federal government began attempts to eliminate racial discrimination in employment and wages, and then the passage talks about how it did so: via Title VII and Executive Order 11,246. So it’s entirely possible that both of them would have worked towards (C); nothing separates out the two and distinguishes them in this regard.

Also, remember that we’re told that the federal government “began attempts to eliminate racial discrimination in employment and wages.” So we’re told that these attempts began, but we aren’t told that discriminatory disparities in wages were actually eliminated. So we can’t even say that Title VII even did (C), since it just attempted to do (C) (and attempting to do something and actually doing it are two different things), and that’s why (C) is wrong here.

Hope this helps! Feel free to ask any other questions that you might have.