The odds of winning any major lottery jackpot are extremely slight. However, the very few people who do win major jac...

My understanding is that some implies at least one. So how is it that we can derive a conclusion that uses "many" from a premise that uses "at least one". It seems as if the answer does not necessarily follow from the premises, unless we assume that "many" and "some" are equivalent, however, I don't see how many could every mean one, so these quantifiers to me do not appear to necessarily be equivalent.