i am having trouble figuring out why answer E is incorrect. why can it not be disproven with P(f)S O(f) V R. this does not break any rules and shows that there can be more than one f before V
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E does not have to be true. We can make a scenario in which there are multiple Fs before it. I think you actually proved this. Wrong answers on a must be true are ones that we can show an example where it is not the case, as you did here.
