It can be inferred from the passage that modern critics' interpretations of Webster's tragedies would be more valid if
RobrAugust 19, 2023
Lines 18-22
Wouldn't it be reasonable to infer from these lines that the author is highlighting the critics presuppositions as the the source of inaccurate critique.
And the presuppositions being caused by the popularity of a specific style which excludes Italian influence in favor of Ren and Medieval?
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I agree that those lines suggest that the author thinks the reason modern critics get Webster wrong is because of their focus on English drama over Italian drama. The fact is that Webster was influenced far more by the latter than by the former, yet critics view him through the lens of Elizabethan drama. For the views of those critics' to be more reasonable, Webster would have had to been influenced more by English medical tradition than he actually was.