@1Latonya the point of this passage is not that knowledge of Shakespeare's plays is a suitable criterion for distinguishing the educated elite from other members of English society.
The passage starts with a claim that in England appreciation for Shakespeare's work always extended beyond educated elites to comparatively uneducated people.
The passage then casts doubt on this claim by pointing to the fine paper and good bindings of early eighteenth century editions of his plays, which "must have been far beyond the reach of people of ordinary means."
This is exactly what (B) says, "provide evidence that at some time in the past appreciation for Shakespeare's plays was confined to educated elites."
So (B) would be the correct answer.
Hope that helps! Please let us know if you have any other questions.
