Studies of brain lateralization in animals have purported to show that, whereas most human beings are right-handed, a...
BatmanNovember 8, 2013
Help
Why is the choice (a) not an answer?? Doesn't it weaken the argument dogs use only right hand when they shake hands by presenting that dogs use both hands??
Replies
Create a free account to read and
take part in forum discussions.
The conclusion of this argument is that the finding that half of any given group of animals will be "left-handed" and half will be "right-handed" is suspect. Why? Because of the counter example provided, i.e. it has long been noted that dogs will almost always "shake hands" with the right paw.
(A) is incorrect because it does not present a strong defense against the counterexample of dogs that "shake hands." This answer choice describes the habits of dogs scratching themselves. Just because dogs are observed to scratch themselves with both legs, this does not help us defend against the claim that dogs almost always shake with their right paw. Our correct answer will help us defend against this, so that we can weaken the argument by weakening the force of this counterexample. Just because dogs use both legs to scratch, does not nullify the fact that they almost always use their right hand to "shake."
(B) is incorrect because it does not defend against the counterexample. Even if they are observing just a behavior that is performed only with the front paw, it is still a behavior that is happening that goes against animals having a 50/50 preference for left or right limbs. Remember, left-handedness in animals is defined in the argument as showing a preference for their left limbs, not for their left front limb or back limb.
(C) is incorrect because it does not defend against the counterexample. If dogs do not face an analogous difficulty, we have still not explained why dogs almost always "shake hands" with the right paw.
(D) is incorrect because it does not defend against the counterexample. Dogs that have lost limbs are not pertinent to the argument.
(E) is CORRECT because it helps defend against the counterexample. If it is true that dogs are influenced by their trainers (of which we know probably have a high degree of right-handedness since "most human beings are right-handed"), then that means that their strong preference for "shaking" with their right hand is learned as opposed to innate; which means that the finding that "about half of any given group of animals will be 'left-handed' and half will be 'right-handed'" is still viable.
Hope that helps! Let me know if you have any other questions!
