What is the paradox here? We know that ancient Romans had a very good understanding of water power and even made extensive and excellent use of water as an energy source in some outlying parts of the empire. However, the Romans do without water power in regions dominated by large cities.
Our correct answer will explain why the Romans utilized water power in outlying areas, but not in the large cities.
Answer choice (D) states: "In most areas to which the use of water power was not extended, other, more traditional sources of energy continued to be used."
So, this does not explain why water power is used in outlying cities, but not in large cities. It merely explains that those areas that do not use water power use traditional sources of energy. Our discrepancy has not been addressed; we still don't know why the Romans don't use water power in large cities. Water is free and accessible. Why would they use it in outlying cities and not in large ones?
Answer choice (E) states: "In heavily populated areas the introduction of water power would have been certain to cause social unrest by depriving large numbers of people of their livelihood."
This answer choice explains our paradox. The reason why Romans are not using water power in large cities is because the introduction of water power would cause social unrest by depriving many people of their livelihood. Thus, we have our reason as to why Romans, though they have an excellent understanding of using water as an energy source, use it in outlying areas and not in large cities.
Hope that was helpful! Please let us know if you have any more questions.
CairoSeptember 15, 2014
Great! I see now I was looking at it from the wrong angle, that explanation helped a lot - Thank you!
