The caffeine in coffee stimulates the production of irritating acid in the stomach. But darker roasts of coffee, prod...

hpw on July 4, 2019

explain please


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Victoria on July 5, 2019

Hi @hpw,

The passage is arguing that, "if you drink caffeinated coffee, darker roasts will irritate your stomach less than lighter roasts." Why? Because "the caffeine in coffee stimulates the production of irritating acid in the stomach. But darker roasts of coffee, produced by roasting the coffee beans longer, contain more NMP than lighter roasts, and NMP tends to suppress production of acid in the stomach."

We are looking for the answer choice that would be most helpful in evaluating the argument.

B is incorrect as it is irrelevant. The passage is arguing that the reduction in acid production will irritate your stomach less. It is not necessarily recommending that you drink darker coffee and, therefore, is not impacted by the potential of adverse effects on stomach function.

C is incorrect because the passage does not discuss the relative caffeine content of dark roast as compared to light roast coffee.

D is incorrect because it is irrelevant. Even if coffee drinkers who made the switch increased their daily coffee consumption, they would also be increasing their intake of NMP which would suppress the production of acid in their stomach.

E is incorrect fort the same reasons that B is incorrect.

Finally, A is correct because the passage is arguing that drinking darker roast coffee will irritate your stomach less because the higher amount of NMP suppresses the production of acid in your stomach stimulated by the caffeine in coffee. If darker roasts also have a higher amount of caffeine than lighter roasts then there is the possibility that the benefits of increased NMP will be negated, making dark and light roast coffee nearly equivalent in the amount of stomach irritation they cause. Therefore, the answer to this question is essential in evaluating the argument as the conclusion of the argument may be negated if the answer to the question presented in answer choice A is yes.

Hope this is helpful! Please let us know if you have any further questions.

Dro1215 on June 14, 2021

Impaired stomach function IS stomach irritation. i am not convinced, please explain how impaired stomach function is not stomach irritation. Irritation can certainly manifest itself as impaired functionality.