@chris_va No, it is not because the percentages are not varied enough. Instead, the flaw comes from the fact that the argument is comparing percentages of two different groups whose sizes are unknown. If there are 1,000 dog owners and only 100 cat owners, the percentage of degree-holders would be higher in cat homes while the actual number of degree-holders would be higher in dog homes. Therefore, we cannot make a statement about what is more likely unless we know that the overall group sizes are comparable.
Does this make sense? I'm happy to go into more detail if you'd like a full breakdown of the question!