Farnoush on January 3 at 06:33PM
Originally going through this question I couldnâ€™t find an answer choice that was direct because based on the rules
If M is in G then it has to b alone so if we have Z in G that means that R must be in F because the first rule states that F-> L/Z.
So based on that rule we can infer that L must be in F
Based on the rule that P has to have S then they go into H which leaves M and R. Wouldnâ€™t it be then that R has to go into G rather then M based on the rule that if M is in G then itâ€™s only M in.
Andrea on January 3 at 08:54PM