Kenji on March 19 at 03:51PM
I still don't quite understand the analogy. Is the passage suggesting that in the US and Canada it is only considered if a blackmailer seeks something in return for not revealing certain information. Meaning simply revealing the information would not constitute as a crime. While in the classical Roman law, it would be a crime if the information harms the victim?
Ben on March 19 at 04:41PM