(B) "concludes from a mere correlation between certain phenomena that those phenomena are causally related"
This is incorrect, as the main conclusion of the argument is that Jenkin's conclusion must be rejected, and Jenkin's conclusion is centered around intent. There is no correlation versus causation flaw in this conclusion, and the argument focuses on intent versus results instead. Moreover, the causation that is mentioned in the supporting premises is consistent. We are told that the movie was not meant "to provoke antisocial behavior" and that "the movie has clearly produced antisocial behavior." The movie is always positioned as the cause and the antisocial behavior as the effect, and no correlational statements are made to suggest otherwise.
Does that make sense? Please let us know if you have any other questions!