The purpose of a general theory of art is to explain every aesthetic feature that is found in any of the arts. Premo...

Anna20 on August 6, 2020

Question Explanation

Please could you explain why C is not the answer here? It seemed less difficult to prove than D. Thanks so much!

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shunhe on August 7, 2020

Hi @Anna2020,

Thanks for the question! Let’s take a look at this stimulus first. We’re told that the purpose of a general theory of art is to explain every aesthetic feature found in any of the arts. Premodern general theories of art, though, focus primarily on art and sculpture, and so every one of them fails to explain some aesthetic feature of music (even if they work for painting and sculpture).

So now we’re asked for something that is most strongly supported by the passage; in other words, this is a must be true question. First, let’s take a look at (D). We’re told there that no premodern general theory of art achieves its purpose unless music isn’t art. Well, that definitely seems to be true. After all, if music is art, and the theories don’t explain music, then they don’t achieve their purpose (which is to explain every aesthetic feature found in any of the arts). So they don’t achieve their purposes (since they don’t explain some feature of music) UNLESS music isn’t art. ??Now let’s take a look at (C), which tells s that any theory of art that focuses primarily on sculpture and painting can’t explain every aesthetic feature of music. Is that what the stimulus says? We’re told that every PREMODERN general theory of art focused on painting and sculpture, and those can’t explain some feature of music. But does that mean that EVERY theory

Hope this helps! Feel free to ask any other questions that you might have.

yckim2180 on November 12, 2022

But even if music wasn't art, since it says in the passage that “the purpose of a general theory of art is to explain every aesthetic feature that is found in ANY of the arts” (and there are other types of arts aside from sculpture and painting), premodern general theory of art still would not achieve its purpose. So how could D be the correct answer?

Emil-Kunkin on November 12, 2022

Hi, D tells us that the premodern theories fail unless music is not art. We know that the theories fail to explain music, so the only way that they could succeed would be if for some reason, we did not count music as art. This isn't trying to make premodern theories succeed, it is establishing something necessary for them to succeed.