I feel like in the explanation for C being the right answer they kind of assume that soluble narcotics are a valid reason for only consuming small quantities of the tea at dawn. It never says that the narcotic impairs them in any way and just because something is a narcotic that doesn't mean it's going to impair you.
I agree none of the other answers quite make sense, but I felt that E fit better than C. Obviously I was wrong, but I'm still confused as to why.
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Hi, the fact that a substance is a narcotic is in fact a valid reason for not consuming huge amounts of it at dawn. A narcotic by definition impairs you, and since we know they have tasks to perform during the day, the narcotic would stop them from doing those tasks. Unless you are an absolute, reckless degenerate, you are not likely to reasonably believe that huge amounts of narcotics in the early morning will not impair your ability to perform daily tasks that require sure-footedness.
