Eighteenth-century European aesthetics was reasonably successful in providing an understanding of all art, including ...
Jacobon August 5, 2017
Explanation
Can you explain the right answer
Replies
on May 24, 2018
I chose D, why is E the correct answer?
Anitaon May 24, 2018
@JayDee8732 @meisen The author tells us that because 18th-C European aesthetics can't provide a complete theory of aesthetics, there cannot be a complete theory.
This seems to be ignoring any - any at all - other potential theories of aesthetics. The 18th-C in Europe is not the end-all-be-all of art. There could be any other potential theories out there, and perhaps one of those provides a complete or otherwise more encompassing theory!
That is why E is correct. It tells us the argument is vulnerable to the criticism that it assumes 18th-C European aesthetics is as encompassing a theory as there can be.
