Eighteenth-century European aesthetics was reasonably successful in providing an understanding of all art, including ...

JayDee8732 on August 5, 2017

Explanation

Can you explain the right answer

Replies

Create a free account to read and take part in forum discussions.

Already have an account? log in

meisen on May 24, 2018

I chose D, why is E the correct answer?

Anita on May 24, 2018

@JayDee8732 @meisen The author tells us that because 18th-C European aesthetics can't provide a complete theory of aesthetics, there cannot be a complete theory.

This seems to be ignoring any - any at all - other potential theories of aesthetics. The 18th-C in Europe is not the end-all-be-all of art. There could be any other potential theories out there, and perhaps one of those provides a complete or otherwise more encompassing theory!

That is why E is correct. It tells us the argument is vulnerable to the criticism that it assumes 18th-C European aesthetics is as encompassing a theory as there can be.

YulissaCardoza on June 17, 2020

Can you explain why B is wrong please